2 ms·

Please explain the reason why you think they have it backwards. Does the "first world" survive on not-crops?

• gpm 7y ago
  The first world, for as long as that has been a term, has had more than sufficient supplies of food. Unlike many other parts of the world in the same period of time.
  • gourabmi 7y ago
    I think there are couple of assumptions that I want to point out. Having more than sufficient supply of food translates to having reliable supply chain of food. With increased globalization, supply chains have become more specialized. This has allowed us to have access to a wide variety of goods and services at competitive prices. But it has come at the cost of supplier dependence. As we are currently experiencing in the Covid-19 outbreak, global supply chains are sensitive to disruptions from global events. Hence, this is a global issue. Last year, minor variations in supply of Avocados had people talking in the Bay Area. On this very page, we are talking about effects of climate change on wine production. A population which is used to a reliable and consistent supply of goods is more susceptible to variation in the same. Hence, I think crop failures are very much a first world problem too.