5 ms·
It has been mentioned in a number of threads that there are likely a significant number of underreported cases, e.g. John Hopkins study. However, if cases are u
by chrononaut 7y ago
It has been mentioned in a number of threads that there are likely a significant number of underreported cases, e.g. John Hopkins study. However, if cases are underreported and it is implied that these are more mild cases, would that mean that these more mild cases are less likely to infect others? I ask this because if there's a hidden but significant fraction of cases, it seems to be beyond the scope of nearly every quarantine (i.e. asymptomatic people going about their day) and if the transmission rate is equal I would think we would see a lot of uncontrolled spreading. Perhaps Italy and South Korea are an example of this, although I would've imagined far more Western countries with deep distributed infections if are so many high transmission, light or asymptomatic carriers around.
Concurrent to this, I am surprised the original dozen set of infections in the US seemed to have not infected nearly anyone else, assuming close contacts were appropriately monitored.
- netheril96 7y agoThis disease has a potentially long incubation period, and patients do not get severely ill without weeks of development. You are not seeing an outbreak yet simply because it is still brewing, not because it isn’t there.
- pmoriarty 7y agoIn China, where the overwhelming amount of cases in the John Hopkins study came from, deaths were also likely to have been underreported or miscategorized as not being caused by COVID-19. We're not sure to what extent that has happened, but it could also alter estimates of disease mortality rates for the worse.