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Part of the problem is, it’s not a legit, best price, arm’s-length, market price. Facebook:Ireland is just a sock puppet for Facebook:USA, and the latter has no
by SilasX 7y ago
Part of the problem is, it’s not a legit, best price, arm’s-length, market price. Facebook:Ireland is just a sock puppet for Facebook:USA, and the latter has no intention of selling it to a true outsider.
OTOH, if FB:USA sold the rights to FB:I for $1, knowing it would pay billions to license those rights the next year, I don’t get how that can be a proper valuation, even without a clear price discovery mechanism.
- AnthonyMouse 7y agoThe real issue is that "market price" legitimately has an amount of slop in it that can eat the company's entire profit. Suppose it costs $50M in salaries to create intellectual property which is then licensed to customers for $500M. Which one is the "market price"? It was sold for both prices, once by the employees to the company and then by the company to the customers. But the difference is a factor of ten. More than that, the difference can be justified. When the $50M is paid, you don't know whether anybody will buy it. Maybe you'll make a billion dollars, or maybe you'll make nothing and just flushed $50M down the toilet. Or maybe you'll make a profit but the profits are spread over future years whereas the work was paid for immediately, so in an arms length market transaction you would expect the price paid to be discounted for the time value of money. So they pay $50M for something they go on to sell for $500M. Which one is the market price? Both of them. This obviously leaves more than enough slack for chicanery.
- gamblor956 7y agoThat is not how IP valuation works. The internal cost is not the measure; the potential or actually sales/licensing value of the IP is the measure.
- AnthonyMouse 7y agoWhat measure? It's two different transactions that occur under different terms at different times. Suppose some code is written by an independent contractor instead of your employees. The contractor is in San Francisco. The San Francisco office pays the contractor, then does nothing more than immediately sell the rights to the code to the Ireland office for approximately the same amount. You just demonstrated that that was the market price -- the contractor was willing to accept it in an arms length transaction with an independent third party. The Ireland office could have just as well paid the contractor directly. What value is the San Francisco office supposed to be adding that justifies being awarded a significant fraction of the total revenue?
- SilasX 7y ago"Sell" is a four-letter word. Was that an actual market transaction where the seller got the highest price they could, and said price was evaluated by the buyer against alternatives? No, of course not. It was a dictated sale, precisely to present a fiction to the tax authorities. You can only use a sale price to justify a valuation when it's under those circumstances, or a good-faith approximation of such circumstances. In normal circumstances t would make no sense for FB to take on the risk of hiring a contractor and justify the RoR to shareholders knowing they could only immediately sell for exactly what they paid. That's not how sane businesses operate.
- AnthonyMouse 7y ago> Was that an actual market transaction where the seller got the highest price they could, and said price was evaluated by the buyer against alternatives? No, of course not. Why not? The San Francisco office doesn't have any monopoly over the contractor. It doesn't have anything the Ireland office wants that nobody else could provide. So what is it doing that justifies it receiving a significant premium? > You can only use a sale price to justify a valuation when it's under those circumstances, or a good-faith approximation of such circumstances. How isn't the transaction between employee and employer any different? If there were two otherwise identical jobs doing the same work and one paid more, the employee would choose the higher paying one, so it's not unreasonable in general to assume that what the company paid the employee was the market rate to have that sort of work done. > In normal circumstances t would make no sense for FB to take on the risk of hiring a contractor and justify the RoR to shareholders knowing they could only immediately sell for exactly what they paid. That's not how sane businesses operate. But they do know that. The Ireland office is willing to immediately pay them the full amount they're paying the employees, so the US office is taking no risk. No risk, no reward; thin margins are the norm in that sort of transaction.
- gamblor956 7y agoYou keep trying to make logical arguments about a very small portion of the entire transaction without looking how that transaction relates to much larger business concerns. The law, tax, business, and reality doesn't work that way. They make policy based on a view of the entire forest, not on the gnarls in a single tree branch. Territory matters when you're talking about taxing value creation. It always has. If you're arguing against that you're literally arguing against thousands of years against human history. The short answer: it's this way because humankind fought a lot of wars to make it this way, and trying to change it could result in more violence. How isn't the transaction between employee and employer any different? If there were two otherwise identical jobs doing the same work and one paid more, the employee would choose the higher paying one, so it's not unreasonable in general to assume that what the company paid the employee was the market rate to have that sort of work done. No, it's not reasonable to make that assumption based on the facts. The employee/business relationship is not related to the value of product created by the employee. This is literally not how any business works. If it was, then most tech startup employees would get paid below minimum wage. FAANG programmer salaries would start in the low millions after a year or two on the job. Mid-level attorneys at most law firms would be making a cool million each year. Backoffice employees at any company wouldn't get paid at all, because they don't contribute to the creation of products. But they do know that. The Ireland office is willing to immediately pay them the full amount they're paying the employees, so the US office is taking no risk. No risk, no reward; thin margins are the norm in that sort of transaction. Valuation isn't about what the Irish company would do. Valuation is about how much the IP would be worth on the open market, to unrelated third parties who might not have insider knowledge of the actual cost of creating the IP, and thus who base their offer prices on the value of the IP to their own interests. More importantly, if the Irish office was always going to reimburse the US office for hiring the US contractor to create the IP, that trail of paperwork says the Irish office was the actual creator of the IP, because the US office was just acting as its agent in hiring the contractor. And that's a very different scenario than what you were originally talking about. (And side note: backdating legal documents to suggest this was the contemplated transaction all along is a crime in both the US and Ireland likely to result in prison time if the IP has any significant value.)