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> How does one seize a firm's assets if a firm has no private property? That implies the firm has nothing to seize because it has nothing. Well the traditiona
by monadic2 7y ago
> How does one seize a firm's assets if a firm has no private property? That implies the firm has nothing to seize because it has nothing.
Well the traditional linguistic connotations of possession certainly persist. Here "seize" simply means take control of.