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AFAIK only if you ignore a bunch of Latin and Greek phonetics. The <ph> was an aspirated /p/ before it was an /f/. The Romans said <v> as a /w/ sound. Maybe
by asveikau 7y ago
AFAIK only if you ignore a bunch of Latin and Greek phonetics.
The <ph> was an aspirated /p/ before it was an /f/.
The Romans said <v> as a /w/ sound.
Maybe someone can correct me but I don't think an [i] to [a] change or vice-versa is that common in Latin derivates.
If you're saying "silvia sounds like salvia", maybe we should also conclude the Latin word for "forest" also derives from that? But the etymologies are actually totally different in that case, the similarity is just a coincidence.
- grawprog 7y agoJust in case anyone was actually wondering. https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salvia https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Salvia >The name Salvia ("salviya") derives from the Latin salvere ("to feel well and healthy, health, heal"), the verb related to salus (health, well-being, prosperity or salvation), referring to the herb's healing properties. Pliny the Elder was the first author known to describe a plant called "Salvia" by the Romans, likely describing the type species for the genus Salvia, Salvia officinalis.