Presumably if you're referring to a specific individual, you already know the gender so using "they" in that situation would appear to be incorrect. However, i

Presumably if you're referring to a specific individual, you already know the gender so using "they" in that situation would appear to be incorrect. However, in the general sense I would argue that the conjugation of verbs follows a pattern but that pattern doesn't have to be singular vs. plural. Given "he has" or "she has" one might expect a singular "they" to follow the pattern "they has". However, "I" is singular yet it uses "I have", so it's not unexpected for the singular "they" to use "they have". In other words, the conjugation of "they" is the same regardless of whether it's singular or plural.