1) The phrase that _I_ used? When did I use it? 2) Okay, fine, we'll use YOUR reference instead of MINE, even though they basically say the same thing. What

1) The phrase that _I_ used? When did I use it? 2) Okay, fine, we'll use YOUR reference instead of MINE, even though they basically say the same thing. What they say is that there are multiple meanings, and some of those meanings are the opposite of one another. In situations like that, the reader gets to work it out. It's not a case of having simply used the word wrong, as you claimed. In fact, both dictionaries (wikt, dictionary.com) specifically mention this in their usage notes. So why are you citing a source that agrees with me? Scroll down in the link YOU chose, to where Collins Dictionary senses 2 and 3 are consistent with the OP's intent. Scroll down in the link YOU chose, to where the Online Etymology Dictionary says that for 50 years now it is coming back into fashion to use it in the original sense of "abundant". If you're a descriptivist, then the fact is that people use it this way. And if you're a prescriptivist who prefers original meanings, then use the original (15c) meaning. Prescriptivists who only know about 100 years of history are only fooling themselves. Don't get me wrong, I'm all for pedantic corrections, it's a bad habit of mine too. But only when they're correct. You said "ekidd, you're using this word wrong", but actually, ekidd's usage was perfectly valid, as even your source of choice admits.