3 ms·
Wouldn't the median need to be over 1? I get your point but am feeling pedantic today.
by tclancy 7y ago
Wouldn't the median need to be over 1? I get your point but am feeling pedantic today.
- linza 7y agoIf more than (or equal to) half of computers are used by only one person, then the median user count is 1, no?
- mulmen 7y agoIf you have 3 PCs in the world, one with 0 users, one with 1 user and one with 23 users the median is 1. Median is literally the middle, like a highway.
- BanazirGalbasi 7y agoThey're just stating that having more than half of all computers with just 1 user guarantees that the median is 1.
- projektfu 7y agoIf more than 50% of personal computers have 1 or 0 users, then the median would be 1, assuming 0 users is less common than 1, regardless of how many users the remaining computers had.
- paulddraper 7y agoNo. For example, suppose five computers have 1 user, 1 user, 1 user, 3 users, 300 users. The median is 1 user. The claim of "median 1 user" just means more than half of computers has a single user.