4 ms·
If there was a foul bunt with two strikes then he would have struck out and not had a chance to hit that two run home run. Unless that particular rule has been
by alanfalcon 16y ago
If there was a foul bunt with two strikes then he would have struck out and not had a chance to hit that two run home run. Unless that particular rule has been added since 1985.
- tedunangst 16y agoMaybe it was miscalled and not really a bunt? The possibility it was the next batter (considering that some time passed) may be more likely. According to yahoo answers, of all places, the rule has been in place since 1909. http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080723181123AAVB9Ba http://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20080723181123AA...