i don't understand. the West taught my country that IP is the same as physical property, and it would be stealing to violate IP. now an owner of a property dec

i don't understand. the West taught my country that IP is the same as physical property, and it would be stealing to violate IP. now an owner of a property decided to release the album in the UK on 4th of February, and in the US only on the CDs 10 days later. what else is the evidence of having rights on the intangible property, if not a right to make such decisions? i'm confused :)