I'd always thought it was because the marginal cost of a developer is 0, right? That is, developers build software, then they go to work on the next thing whil

I'd always thought it was because the marginal cost of a developer is 0, right? That is, developers build software, then they go to work on the next thing while company can sell existing software. Each additional unit of software sale doesn't have a developer cost component (unlike for example, shoes, where the labor cost of the worker is factored into making each additional shoe). Is that close to what you're saying?