2 ms·
No it doesn't. The "freely-given consent" clause is incredibly vague and cannot force a business to provide a value to consumers against their choice and/or for
by manigandham 7y ago
No it doesn't. The "freely-given consent" clause is incredibly vague and cannot force a business to provide a value to consumers against their choice and/or for free.
There are also dozens of workarounds from legitimate use of data to contract-in-effect (like email newsletters). This is an example of the poor legislation aspects of GDPR and other privacy laws that are not based in technical reality.