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I have a different view. Considering the company employed "Person A" to create a spreadsheet, why would it be a violation to employ "Person B" to gain access to
by zelon88 7y ago
I have a different view. Considering the company employed "Person A" to create a spreadsheet, why would it be a violation to employ "Person B" to gain access to it in the absence of "Person A"? The company owns all of the technology and employs all of the personnel involved, no?
- NullPrefix 7y agoWasn't he a consultant, not an employee?
- ska 7y ago> company owns all of the technology and employs all of the personnel involved, no? No, he's a contractor. So what they own precisely should have been defined in the consulting contract. It may have been perfectly legal for him to password protect the output, much like using an obsfucator - but the time-bomb stuff is fraud any way you cut it.