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Are you sure about this? "Bhavana" most certainly does not mean "a place" in modern parlance (see: "Rashtrapati Bhavan", which is the president's residence), an

Are you sure about this? "Bhavana" most certainly does not mean "a place" in modern parlance (see: "Rashtrapati Bhavan", which is the president's residence), and a lot of the other words have extant meanings in Hindi which differ significantly from what you've said here. Either Hindi has diverged a whole lot from Sanskrit and the meanings have changed (vimana literally means flying vehicle, and I'm pretty sure it's the same in Sanskrit), or you have some dubious sources.

tasogare 7y ago
> Either Hindi has diverged a whole lot from Sanskrit and the meaning have changed Yes it changed significantly. That’s why philology exists. And also why languages with long existence are classified in different strata.
- sombremesa 7y ago
  I doubt philology exists specifically because Hindi and Sanskrit diverged. Anyhow, have the meanings of extant words common to both languages significantly diverged? Do you have a source?
  - riskneutral 7y ago
    The practice of Buddhism has nothing to do with arguing on the Internet about the exact meanings of words in an ancient language that Gautama Buddha didn't even speak (we are told he spoke Magadhi Prakrit, not Sanskrit).
    - sombremesa 7y ago
      Look, this is a discussion forum. I was under the impression that we were having a good faith discussion and I'm genuinely curious about my question, whether extant words in Hindi and Sanskrit have significantly diverged in meaning. You can antagonize me if you like, but you can also choose not to participate in this specific thread if you don't have a meaningful contribution.
  - peex 7y ago
    He didn't mean that philology exists because of the divergence. He means philology exists to better understand these kind of language differences.
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webboynews 7y ago
Hes using the word "place" in the sense Americans use it.
mangatmodi 7y ago
Hindi had a complete overhaul under British rule. Hindi have several dialects and all of them are quite different than Sankirit.

tasogare 7y ago

> Either Hindi has diverged a whole lot from Sanskrit and the meaning have changed Yes it changed significantly. That’s why philology exists. And also why languages with long existence are classified in different strata.

sombremesa 7y ago
I doubt philology exists specifically because Hindi and Sanskrit diverged. Anyhow, have the meanings of extant words common to both languages significantly diverged? Do you have a source?
- riskneutral 7y ago
  The practice of Buddhism has nothing to do with arguing on the Internet about the exact meanings of words in an ancient language that Gautama Buddha didn't even speak (we are told he spoke Magadhi Prakrit, not Sanskrit).
  - sombremesa 7y ago
    Look, this is a discussion forum. I was under the impression that we were having a good faith discussion and I'm genuinely curious about my question, whether extant words in Hindi and Sanskrit have significantly diverged in meaning. You can antagonize me if you like, but you can also choose not to participate in this specific thread if you don't have a meaningful contribution.
- peex 7y ago
  He didn't mean that philology exists because of the divergence. He means philology exists to better understand these kind of language differences.
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webboynews 7y ago

Hes using the word "place" in the sense Americans use it.

mangatmodi 7y ago

Hindi had a complete overhaul under British rule. Hindi have several dialects and all of them are quite different than Sankirit.