Sorry, I thought your original post was meant to address my original point. I said that the Born Rule (the association between squared amplitudes and subjective

Sorry, I thought your original post was meant to address my original point. I said that the Born Rule (the association between squared amplitudes and subjective probabilities) isn't intuitive in MWI, and I thought you said "It makes sense because of Bayesianism." Does it provide a deductive argument for using the squared amplitude? Or does it just make use of the same empirical evidence everyone else uses, and actually not provide any explanatory power?