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Sure, such statements exist. But would a mathematician consider one of them true without a proof of some sort? (Nope.)
by bjornsing 7y ago
Sure, such statements exist. But would a mathematician consider one of them true without a proof of some sort?
(Nope.)
- ProfHewitt 7y agoMathematicians consider them to be true because they are provably true, i.e., they hold in the unique up to isomorphism model of the theory Ordinals, which subsumes ZFC.
- bjornsing 7y agoOk, so Ordinals is the new foundation of mathematics so to speak? Doesn’t that mean that all of mathematics can be formalized within this Ordinals theory?
- ProfHewitt 7y agoAll of classical mathematics before 1930 can be formalized in the the theory Ordinals. However, formalizing digital computation requires the theory Actors, which is axiomatized here: https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3459566 https://papers.ssrn.com/sol3/papers.cfm?abstract_id=3459566
- bjornsing 7y agoWow. Thanks.