This is a really weird argument, considering that the First Amendment is emphatically not written as such, and that's what this debate is about: maybe there's a

This is a really weird argument, considering that the First Amendment is emphatically not written as such, and that's what this debate is about: maybe there's a reason why such a phrase appears in 2A but not in 1A, or maybe there's none, but you're begging the question.