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Its about the appearance of serfdom in the early modern era, just as western Europe was freed from it, which in turn is partly driven by population-density. Th
by dimitar 7y ago
Its about the appearance of serfdom in the early modern era, just as western Europe was freed from it, which in turn is partly driven by population-density.
This is far from a new idea BTW, and largely drove the abolition of these institutions in the 19th century (it largely came from the top, not as a result of great rebellions).
Here is a nice and short explanation from Paul Krugman:
"my old teacher Evsey Domar wrote a classic paper arguing that serfdom and slavery often were the response of ruling classes to labor shortage. Thus Russia imposed strict restrictions on the mobility of peasants from the late 16th century onward, precisely because the availability of rich new farmland on the expanding frontier would otherwise have increased their bargaining power against landlords. (The frontier expansion itself was probably the result of the growing effectiveness of firearms, which turned the military balance against the steppe nomads; so gunpowder, which contributed to the rise of the bourgeoisie in the West, created serfdom in the East). And, of course, slavery - which, along with serfdom, had died out in the West during the labor-abundant high Middle Ages - was reintroduced in the land-abundant conditions of the New World."
http://web.mit.edu/krugman/www/Serfdom.htm http://web.mit.edu/krugman/www/Serfdom.htm
Darren Asemoglu's and Robinson's "Why nations fail" in turn go on in length about effects of repressive economic and political institutions to economic growth.
Forms of serfdom and slavery were (re)introduced around the same time in the Muscovite state, the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, Hungary, Wallachia, Moldavia, the Ottoman Empire and even the Cossack Hetmanate which had roots in anti-serfdom rebellion had a form of serfdom.
- AnimalMuppet 7y agoGiven that historical pattern, it's worth noting the exception: When the US west was being settled, they gave away the land to those who wanted to move there, rather than imposing serfdom to prevent it. (Yes, I know, the US south fits the serfdom/slavery pattern...)
- dimitar 7y agoWhen the US (east coast) was first settled, it was largely by indentured servants and prisoners. The settling of the US west parallels the cossack settlements - these guys were free to take land and paid few taxes, but were expected to defend themselves. Normally the goverments of Poland and Russia tried to reduce the cossacks to serfdom (which triggered wars like the great rebellion of Bohdan Khmelnytsky) or at the very least turn them into a warrior class that enforces the serfdom institution (like what happened with the Russian cossacks after the defeat of the big cossack-peasant uprisings there). I think the North of the US started colonizing the West late, when the North was already pretty urbanized, densely populated and industrial, which made the free-soil type settlement possible. The South of course was still fully agricultural, which insentivised a different type of settlement driven by soil erosion by inefficient slave-based agriculture.