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Hmm. I now just realized that the biblical translators must have chosen to transliterate the word, not translate it. It's probably because in context its abou
by netcan 7y ago
Hmm.
I now just realized that the biblical translators must have chosen to transliterate the word, not translate it.
It's probably because in context its about how the word is pronounced, not meaning. In any case, I guess the idiom would have never taken off with the word "corn."
- acqq 7y agoYou can compare the different translations, even through the centuries, here: Vulgate, cc 4th century CE: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Judges+12%3A5-6&version=VULGATE https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Judges+12%3A5-6... Luther, 1545: https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Judges+12%3A6&version=LUTH1545 https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Judges+12%3A6&v... King James Bible (1611): https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Judges+12%3A6&version=KJV https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Judges+12%3A6&v... Septuagint (the Greek translation, older than all above, around 3rd century BCE) didn't keep that word as is: https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/shibboleth-in-the-septuagint.2391146/ https://forum.wordreference.com/threads/shibboleth-in-the-se... "the LXX scholars had difficulties translating the Hebrew word שבלת Shibboleth into Greek, for the simple reason, Greek lacks the phoneme [ʃ]"