4 ms·
I don't think this is possible for any constant y that is not between 0 and e.
by JoshuaDavid 7y ago
I don't think this is possible for any constant y that is not between 0 and e.
- jwilk 7y agoMy hypothesis: • for 1/e ≤ y ≤ e: x = y^(1/y) • no solutions elsewhere Can anyone prove the above? :-)