You are taking theories and treating them as scientific facts. Is it possible that weakening of unions made it easier for politicians to pass globalization pol

You are taking theories and treating them as scientific facts. Is it possible that weakening of unions made it easier for politicians to pass globalization policies which ultimately lead to wage stagnation? Is it possible that trickle-down economics (lower taxes on the rich) lead to concentrated political power for the wealthy who were able to push policies that benefit them (Citizens United, Right to Work, stock buybacks, carried interest loopholes, NAFTA)? Treating 40 years of economic history as a simple binary does nobody any favors. These things are very complex and deserve more than a brush-off.