I'm glad that you agree that the original post was incorrect in stating that: > Bedford's Law is apparently just a fancy name for the phenomenon where 1's appe

I'm glad that you agree that the original post was incorrect in stating that: > Bedford's Law is apparently just a fancy name for the phenomenon where 1's appear much more frequently than 9's in any random sample of numbers. because, as my example shows, it's false for the case of random numbers sampled uniformly across five orders of magnitude. You're also right that it's possible to construct a distribution (such as taking -log(rand())) where this behavior is observed.