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It's because the ranges of distributions you sample from don't necessarily line up nicely with our number systems. For example, if you're measuring the distance
by kirrent 7y ago
It's because the ranges of distributions you sample from don't necessarily line up nicely with our number systems. For example, if you're measuring the distance between you and nearby stars in light years does it seem likely that the distances fit in the range of 0-99.99 light years perfectly? No, it's far more likely to overflow into 100s or even 200s of light years.
Hopefully that gives you an intuitive sense why Benford's law gives a highest probability for 1 as the leading number but 2 is the next most common and so on. You can also see the weaker application by the same argument to the following digits.
- learnstats2 7y agoI'd wager that Benford's law doesn't apply to distances to stars.
- pizza 7y agoSee figure 1b. :) https://digitalcommons.calpoly.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=1087&context=rgp_rsr https://digitalcommons.calpoly.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?artic...
- kirrent 7y agoIn fact, star distances follow Benford's law very well through multiple digits. https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.5794 https://arxiv.org/abs/1401.5794