4 ms·

Rejecting a rule 68 offer doesn't imply the offer was reasonable. Statutory damages mean that licensing fees are not necessarily the basis for damages. Also, i

• kickopotomus 7y ago
  Again, given the defendant's compliance, reasonable offer, and the judge's obvious distaste for the whole ordeal, it is unlikely that they would be awarded anything but the minimum for both statutory and actual damages which would result in a smaller payout than the original offer. Also, sure, the rejection alone may not imply that the offer was reasonable. However, the fact that this is apparently a common pattern of behavior, to the point that the judge (who has heard his cases and is familiar with his antics) decided to put their foot down, implies that the offer was reasonable and that Liebowitz is attempting to use the court for his own gain.