3 ms·
Hopefully that was intended with the implied restriction "in modernity", i.e. since approximately the lead-up to the Enlightenment, since that'd be a position t
by shantly 7y ago
Hopefully that was intended with the implied restriction "in modernity", i.e. since approximately the lead-up to the Enlightenment, since that'd be a position that could be given a credible defense, at least.
- paganel 7y agoYeah, of course it’s related to cultural “modernity”, before that the great majority of the people could not read and they couldn’t care less about the literary works posted by the OP. Yes, that includes even the Bible, I’d say that the majority of European peasants were de facto pagans until the mid-19th century (when literacy rates started increasing) for in fact they did know how to read the damn thing (and outside of Europe almost nobody cared about the Bible before the 1700s).