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Yup, it's always the same SNPs. They can only test a relatively small group of SNPs, and they chose the ones that (at the time) believed differed the most from
by bradknowles 7y ago
Yup, it's always the same SNPs.
They can only test a relatively small group of SNPs, and they chose the ones that (at the time) believed differed the most from one person to the next, so as to maximize the probability of being able to distinguish between individuals.
But if you've got everyone's DNA, then you can calculate those SNPs for everyone, and then easily create kits that would allow you to frame anyone you want just by leaving behind samples of "their" DNA at the crime scene of choice.
- Obi_Juan_Kenobi 7y agoDNA fingerprinting does not utilize SNPs; it uses RFLPs.
- deleted 7y ago[deleted]
- krick 7y agoI feel like I'm asking something you already answered, but just to make sure: this implies, that to frame specifically you I don't need everyone's DNA, I just need a sample of yours, right? And if I understand correctly, DNA evidence is treated with quite a respect in court? So, if I really can make a sample of "fake DNA" (that will be indistinguishable from the "real" for forensics purposes) for a couple hundreds dollars, I really can frame anyone I know for anything (right now!), because getting a sample of their DNA isn't really that difficult. It doesn't quite add up in my head, because if it's so simple, why the courts would even consider it hard evidence?