"Could be due to several reasons. Maybe men are more eager to start working quicker to make money, or maybe they have dependents whom they have to support, and

"Could be due to several reasons. Maybe men are more eager to start working quicker to make money, or maybe they have dependents whom they have to support, and thus they need to start making money quicker." Therefore, the claim that there is a gap between women and men in education level reflecting a male disadvantage is untrue, by your claim. And I am also claiming that the discrepancy might be conflated by other factors, like that it is possible men don't pursue higher education because they may not need to in order to reach high status. Which is something you also confirm by stating that men achieve higher and more dominant positions despite the lack of education because they're more competitive and more risk friendly. Aren't we speaking on the same page? I'm very confused.