How do you arrive at that conclusion in light of his grievances with Holmes/Theranos? Seems pretty obvious that he is distinguishing between the degree of damag

How do you arrive at that conclusion in light of his grievances with Holmes/Theranos? Seems pretty obvious that he is distinguishing between the degree of damage between different scams, believing it is worse to harm low or middle class sick people (with their inherent lack of safety nets) than wealthy investors. Whether or not you or I agree with this assessment, we should be able to distinguish between that point and your interpretation.