Not necessarily (I haven't thought about the issue too much). My point is more that, if insurance companies discriminate using any non-genetic, non-biological

Not necessarily (I haven't thought about the issue too much). My point is more that, if insurance companies discriminate using any non-genetic, non-biological criterion, the outcome would still not be a distribution strictly representative of the population. Because people's choices are influenced by their background. For example, it's quite probable that the distribution of brand and type of car is not uniform across racial lines (or between men and women). Would you consider the outcome resulting from this to be biased? In fact I'm pretty sure it's how European insurance companies still manage to charge more for men, despite being forbidden to explicitly ask that information. That information still affects the pricing model through things like occupation, etc.