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Can't help but wonder if maybe this is because violence towards women in relationships is higher than it is towards men. Edit: Before you dismiss my comment, f

Can't help but wonder if maybe this is because violence towards women in relationships is higher than it is towards men. Edit: Before you dismiss my comment, feel free to look at the details. There have been countless studies that confirm this. https://www.thehotline.org/resources/statistics/ https://www.thehotline.org/resources/statistics/

p10_user 7y ago
What percentage of relationships include violence? I doubt this is a strong explanation for the difference stated in the article.
- pintable 7y ago
  I hate to be dismissive, but literally google your own question. Start here https://www.thehotline.org/resources/statistics/ https://www.thehotline.org/resources/statistics/
  - rat9988 7y ago
    Actually it was up to the original poster to give the numbers. He was right to ask. You can't prove your point and hope that everyone will know the numbers you are relying on to prove your point. Moreover, you original question suggets that you didn't read the published article.
  - Retric 7y ago
    That does not include per relationship statistics.
conanbatt 7y ago
That would work the other way, as more men are physically abused by their partners than the other way around.
- pintable 7y ago
  Got a source for that?
  - conanbatt 7y ago
    Had read the paper but didn't keep a link: it was a fairly uncontroversial one that more men reported being physically/psychologically abused in relationships, but of lower intensity/lethality. Im sure you can find it.
percutaneous 7y ago
That's incorrect.
- whiddershins 7y ago
  It’s worth considering that although the absolute incidence of violence female->male is higher, common sense dictates that the incidence of terrifying and potentially seriously injurious violence is much higher male->female, which is why more concern is directed at it.
  - scarmig 7y ago
    "common sense" isn't the best justification, as plenty of studies provide empirical evidence of exactly that. Iirc there's near parity in general IPV but something like a 2:1 ratio in grievous bodily harm, with even higher ratios when it comes to outright murder.
stormking 7y ago
No, because violence towards women in relationships is not higher than it is towards men. In fact, it's almost 50:50.
odiroot 7y ago
You're spreading anecdotes.
scarmig 7y ago
In case you're genuinely interested, see wiki[0] for an overview of the evidence of parity and controversy. [0] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence_against_men https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence_against_me...
outside1234 7y ago
Are you talking about physical violence or psychological violence? If you are talking about total violence, then I'd argue they are about the same.

p10_user 7y ago

What percentage of relationships include violence? I doubt this is a strong explanation for the difference stated in the article.

pintable 7y ago
I hate to be dismissive, but literally google your own question. Start here https://www.thehotline.org/resources/statistics/ https://www.thehotline.org/resources/statistics/
- rat9988 7y ago
  Actually it was up to the original poster to give the numbers. He was right to ask. You can't prove your point and hope that everyone will know the numbers you are relying on to prove your point. Moreover, you original question suggets that you didn't read the published article.
- Retric 7y ago
  That does not include per relationship statistics.

conanbatt 7y ago

That would work the other way, as more men are physically abused by their partners than the other way around.

pintable 7y ago
Got a source for that?
- conanbatt 7y ago
  Had read the paper but didn't keep a link: it was a fairly uncontroversial one that more men reported being physically/psychologically abused in relationships, but of lower intensity/lethality. Im sure you can find it.

percutaneous 7y ago

That's incorrect.

whiddershins 7y ago
It’s worth considering that although the absolute incidence of violence female->male is higher, common sense dictates that the incidence of terrifying and potentially seriously injurious violence is much higher male->female, which is why more concern is directed at it.
- scarmig 7y ago
  "common sense" isn't the best justification, as plenty of studies provide empirical evidence of exactly that. Iirc there's near parity in general IPV but something like a 2:1 ratio in grievous bodily harm, with even higher ratios when it comes to outright murder.

stormking 7y ago

No, because violence towards women in relationships is not higher than it is towards men. In fact, it's almost 50:50.

odiroot 7y ago

You're spreading anecdotes.

scarmig 7y ago

In case you're genuinely interested, see wiki[0] for an overview of the evidence of parity and controversy. [0] https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence_against_men https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Domestic_violence_against_me...

outside1234 7y ago

Are you talking about physical violence or psychological violence? If you are talking about total violence, then I'd argue they are about the same.