3 ms·
It’s really not. It goes from a 1/3 vs 1/2 question to a 1/1MM vs 1/2, which just makes the difference in odds more easy to perceive.
by sushid 7y ago
It’s really not. It goes from a 1/3 vs 1/2 question to a 1/1MM vs 1/2, which just makes the difference in odds more easy to perceive.
- henrikschroder 7y agoWhere do you get the 1/2 probability from?