4 ms·
Because music theory doesn't know how numbers work. The interval of A(440Hz) to A(440Hz) is "1" in music theory even though it's 0 in literally every other cont
by TheOtherDave 7y ago
Because music theory doesn't know how numbers work. The interval of A(440Hz) to A(440Hz) is "1" in music theory even though it's 0 in literally every other context ever in the history of everything. I mean, if they're going to use a bunch of mathematical terminology, the least they can do is count right.
- posterboy 7y agoIt's not a "1", it's a "prime" and the root of that word is an ordinal (whence "first") not a cardinal. There is no zero'th ordinal. There is just "none", which implies that A to A is simply not an interval.
- andrepd 7y agoSeriously? Music theory is a mess because intervals are counted from 1 and not from 0? >literally every other context ever in the history of everything Have you met a single non-programmer that counts in everyday life starting on 0? Do you even start counting with your fingers from 0?