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I've struggled to sympathize at times, on a case by case basis. Interesting that the existence of these movements seems strongly tied to the historical grantin

I've struggled to sympathize at times, on a case by case basis. Interesting that the existence of these movements seems strongly tied to the historical granting of autonomy to the regions involved. I.e, if some degree of autonomy was once granted (take the Basques), I imagine it solidified and now serves to justify the sense of uniqueness. Whereas if it isn't tolerated (i.e, the U.S), separatist movements are nonexistent despite similar cultural differences existing within a country.

petre 7y ago
Are you aware of the Texan separatist movement? Basically a bunch of nutcackes and conspiracy theorists, Chuch Norris included but nevertheless it exists.
squiggleblaz 7y ago
Well each US state is more-or-less autonomous compared to the Spanish regions. I guess in America states don't, by and large, correspond to the cultural regions that could become independent. Also, the movements demanding autonomy predate the autonomy in almost every case (where they subsequently demand independence). Other times, perhaps the reason for the autonomy demand is not national difference like in the Spanish cases, but simply distance - therefore, it doesn't become a movement for independence. Not only is the autonomy sufficient, but perhaps a backstep is taken: For instance, in mid-19th century Australia the Port Phillip District of NSW demanded autonomy and received a parliament that could do almost anything domestically. Fifty years later, they began reuniting in a federation and there's been not even a hint of independence from Victoria since. Ultimately I think the reason for separation demands in Europe is because Europe is now the federation level of government, and the regions (Flemish, Catalans, Scots) want a seat at the table. So they're not really demanding independence but separation. This is a normal consequence of forming a federation.

petre 7y ago

Are you aware of the Texan separatist movement? Basically a bunch of nutcackes and conspiracy theorists, Chuch Norris included but nevertheless it exists.

squiggleblaz 7y ago

Well each US state is more-or-less autonomous compared to the Spanish regions. I guess in America states don't, by and large, correspond to the cultural regions that could become independent. Also, the movements demanding autonomy predate the autonomy in almost every case (where they subsequently demand independence). Other times, perhaps the reason for the autonomy demand is not national difference like in the Spanish cases, but simply distance - therefore, it doesn't become a movement for independence. Not only is the autonomy sufficient, but perhaps a backstep is taken: For instance, in mid-19th century Australia the Port Phillip District of NSW demanded autonomy and received a parliament that could do almost anything domestically. Fifty years later, they began reuniting in a federation and there's been not even a hint of independence from Victoria since. Ultimately I think the reason for separation demands in Europe is because Europe is now the federation level of government, and the regions (Flemish, Catalans, Scots) want a seat at the table. So they're not really demanding independence but separation. This is a normal consequence of forming a federation.