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The vote was illegal according to the Spanish constitution, the supreme court later confirmed this. You adbicate nothing by refusing to participate in a illega
by kentrado 7y ago
The vote was illegal according to the Spanish constitution, the supreme court later confirmed this.
You adbicate nothing by refusing to participate in a illegal vote.
You can't talk about democratic legitimatecy when only 40% voted.
- JoeAltmaier 7y agoWasn't that after re-writing the constitution? So was the vote illegal at the time? I know this is an emotional issue. But the rule of law is purported to be enshrined in the Spanish Constitution.
- kgwgk 7y ago> Wasn't that after re-writing the constitution? No. "The Constitution has been amended twice. The first time, Article 13.2, Title I was altered to extend to citizens of the European Union the right to active and passive suffrage (both voting rights and eligibility as candidates) in local elections. The second time, in August/September 2011, a balanced budget amendment and debt brake was added to Article 135." https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_Spain https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Constitution_of_Spain