4 ms·
The effect is the same. If you assume malice, the actions you end up predicting are identical to the actions you predict if you assume byzantine organization.
by catalogia 7y ago
The effect is the same. If you assume malice, the actions you end up predicting are identical to the actions you predict if you assume byzantine organization. They are functionally equivalent. The distinction is hardly even a distinction at all, since byzantine organizations are often malicious. Even if no particular individual in the organization has malicious intent, the actions of the organization as a whole may be malicious.
- rictic 7y agoIt would be very surprising indeed if they were truly indistinguishable.