It wouldn't be a formal fallacy in itself although certainly impolite. Perhaps like Slippery Slope. It is related to arguement from ignorance and Dunning-Kreug

It wouldn't be a formal fallacy in itself although certainly impolite. Perhaps like Slippery Slope. It is related to arguement from ignorance and Dunning-Kreuger effect in that it often assumes their comprehended issues are the end of all problems and that the objections may already be implicitly handled. Listing everything explicitly in exhaustive detail technically addresses it but would be both inefficient and bad communication from how overloaded it would get. That said assuming uncovered issues are implicitly covered is itself a fallacious inference. It may be dickish pedantry that is wrong based upon incomplete information but not illogical given what is known and communicated.