I was hoping that someone would review my interpretation of the result. Because I am not a physicist, so most of their discussion is over my head. What I point

I was hoping that someone would review my interpretation of the result. Because I am not a physicist, so most of their discussion is over my head. What I pointed to tells me that the spacing of interference fringes for a ~4 nm object was ~230 nm. But does that mean that the object's wave function leads to probabilities spread over hundreds of nanometers? Or does the fringe spacing merely result from small angular displacements over a long distance?