You are switching stats again, and I can't tell whether you're doing it on purpose, or are unaware that you are doing it. The stat under discussion in the arti

You are switching stats again, and I can't tell whether you're doing it on purpose, or are unaware that you are doing it. The stat under discussion in the article is not "share of all taxes", it's effective individual income tax rate by income percentile. The latter has definitely become less progressive over time, as the article makes clear with data. If "share of all taxes" since taxes is a statistic you think is illustrative of something relevant, notice that since 1980, real family income for the top 5% has dramatically outpaced the median real family income, so it only makes sense that their "share of all taxes" would go up: https://www.cbpp.org/income-gains-widely-shared-in-early-postwar-decades-but-not-since-then-2 https://www.cbpp.org/income-gains-widely-shared-in-early-pos...