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The data linked doesn’t indicate that was the primary reason, there is a small dip in GDP per capita (-10%?) for India/China but it was basically flat. Looks l
by dahdum 7y ago
The data linked doesn’t indicate that was the primary reason, there is a small dip in GDP per capita (-10%?) for India/China but it was basically flat.
Looks like before industrialization the richest countries were only moderately better off. Once it began to take off that gap became enormous.
- jolotriage 7y agoYes the data linked is limited in scope.