So, if the prime minister of your country delegates all of their power to a private company (or group of non-elected people) then you'd still consider that to b

So, if the prime minister of your country delegates all of their power to a private company (or group of non-elected people) then you'd still consider that to be a representative democracy? Especially when the only one that is allowed to propose laws and propose amendments would be that same company? I think it's a question of how many steps removed the decision makers are from elected officials.