Even assuming outrage is selective, the question remains: was the outrage inappropriately withheld before, or is it inappropriately applied now? If indeed it w

Even assuming outrage is selective, the question remains: was the outrage inappropriately withheld before, or is it inappropriately applied now? If indeed it was inappropriately withheld in the past, I don't see any moral necessity to remain consistent, even if the flip-flopping turns out to be politically convenient.