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The point is, a subsidy is when one entity possesses resources (money, equipment, etc.) and grants those resources to another party without expectation of a pos
by manfredo 7y ago
The point is, a subsidy is when one entity possesses resources (money, equipment, etc.) and grants those resources to another party without expectation of a positive return on investment. Some argument can be made that a tax break is a subsidy, but I've often seen that framing used to mislead people into thinking that their tax dollars are actually being spent on the recipient of the tax break (e.g. Amazon in NYC). Trying to put speculative and indirect costs predicted to happen decades in the future under the label of subsidies crosses the line into intellectual dishonesty.
It's not hard to make good arguments for decarbonization of energy production, so using rhetoric with questionable intellectual honesty is often counterproductive.
Here's my reply to your comment below, HN is probably limiting a shared IP:
Your question is self-contradicting. "What if an entity doesn’t possess those resources, but gives them anyway" If an entity does not possess those resources, it cannot give them away. So the crux of the question is whether taking resources from another entity is a subsidy and the answer is no. When the Romans enslaved their neighbors and took their land, it'd be ridiculous to say that the Gauls, Carthaginians, etc. "subsidized" the Roman Republic and Empire. They did not help the Romans expand, in fact they resisted their expansion through force. Affecting climate through greenhouse gas emissions is much less direct than military conquest, but the dynamic is the same.
Good arguments can be made by pointing out that emissions are harmful and degrade our ability to live in our environments, even though carbon free energy production is more expensive. The consequence of people resorting to intellectual dishonesty to try and inflate the cost of fossil fuels make people think that proponents of climate change are naive to the economic reality that carbon free energy, especially renewables, are much more expensive to produce.
- mikeash 7y agoWhat if an entity doesn’t possess those resources, but gives them anyway by taking them from someone else because they’re powerful enough to do it, does that count?
- Qwertious 7y ago>The consequence of people resorting to intellectual dishonesty to try and inflate the cost of fossil fuels make people think that proponents of climate change are naive to the economic reality that carbon free energy, especially renewables, are much more expensive to produce. Except they're not more expensive. The sheer economic damage that greenhouse emissions produceare just as inherent as if your groceries are delivered by a truck that regularly smashes through people's houses on the way. You can't say the truck delivery is "cheaper" than taking the road route, just because the government hasn't forced the truck driver to pay for the houses that were wrecked. I mean you can, but it's an accounting trick. It only exists on paper. You could say "it's not subsidy", but semantics aside, what is it called when the government makes something cheaper through its deliberate choice to charge less than normal (or none) for a certain group? In common parlance, if EVs get 50% off their registration fees, people say "the government subsidises EV registration fees", even if technically they're simply not charging the money in the first place. How is this different to fossil fuels? You could say that they reduced the fees from historical pricing, but then Australia had a carbon price that was abolished (for purely political reasons, FYI) - does that count as subsidising fossil fuels?