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> All words for cheese would therefore have a single origin This isn't how language works. Even languages from the same family, including very closely related
by tom_mellior 7y ago
> All words for cheese would therefore have a single origin
This isn't how language works. Even languages from the same family, including very closely related ones, often have different words for the same concept. Consider that English and French are both Indo-European languages, and that English has a lot of its vocabulary from French, and still "cheese" and "fromage" don't have the same origin. Or consider Spanish, which is closely related to French and Italian ("formaggio"), and which has "queso" (which, again, has the same Latin root as "cheese" does).
The English word, like many inherited from French, has a Latin origin but English got "cheese" not via French but via a borrowing of the Latin word into a Germanic language, although Proto-Germanic already had a completely fine word for cheese: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Germanic/justaz https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Reconstruction:Proto-Germanic....
The point being, the evolution of words is not as linear as you seem to think.
EDIT:
> Suppose language came from one source (the monogenetic theory [4], [4] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monogenetic_theory_of_pidgins https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monogenetic_theory_of_pidgins
That's only about pidgins, not all languages by far. You meant this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Human_language https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-Human_language
- peterburkimsher 7y agoThank you for your comments! "justaz" you were saying, language is pretty complicated, so it's not worth making broad conclusions from etymology. Yes, you're right about Proto-Human language - I'd just done a quick search for "monogenesis" and found the wrong page. Would you agree though, that if written language has a single origin, then there must have been an ancient worldwide trade network, through which cheese would also have travelled?
- tom_mellior 7y ago> Would you agree though, that if written language has a single origin, then there must have been an ancient worldwide trade network, through which cheese would also have travelled? The question of language is independent of this question, I think. Even if there was a single origin, cheese might have been invented locally after languages had separated. Moreover, we know that there were ancient worldwide trade networks. The Roman Empire had silk imported from China 2000 years ago. Cheese and cheese recipes could have traveled from Europe along the Silk Road, just as tofu might have traveled from China to Europe. I wouldn't assume that the idea of cheese was unknown in China until recently. For whatever it's worth, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheese#Origins https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cheese#Origins says: "The earliest ever discovered preserved cheese was found in the Taklamakan Desert in Xinjiang, China, and it dates back as early as 1615 BCE." linking to https://eu.usatoday.com/story/tech/2014/02/25/worlds-oldest-cheese/5776373/ https://eu.usatoday.com/story/tech/2014/02/25/worlds-oldest-... as the source. So if cheese is historically not popular in China, I wouldn't think that this is because there was no knowledge of cheese in China, I would guess that there are some cultural preferences or other reasons that it didn't catch on. Maybe the Chinese knew that they couldn't digest milk well and decided that milk and milk products in general must be bad for you. I don't know.