I don't think this is true, do notation (see https://www.haskell.org/onlinereport/haskell2010/haskellch3.html#x8-470003.14 https://www.haskell.org/onlinereport/

I don't think this is true, do notation (see https://www.haskell.org/onlinereport/haskell2010/haskellch3.html#x8-470003.14 https://www.haskell.org/onlinereport/haskell2010/haskellch3....) specifically depends on the Monad typeclass and exists as syntactic sugar for monadic operators: > A do expression provides a more conventional syntax for monadic programming