> The current view of antitrust law has been operative since the 1980s, So since the beginning of the Regan/Thatcher era and the birth of Neoliberal politics?

> The current view of antitrust law has been operative since the 1980s, So since the beginning of the Regan/Thatcher era and the birth of Neoliberal politics? Interestingly, that timeline lines up pretty well with the rise in income inequality (https://www.forbes.com/sites/louiswoodhill/2013/03/28/the-mystery-of-income-inequality-broken-down-to-one-simple-chart/ https://www.forbes.com/sites/louiswoodhill/2013/03/28/the-my...) and when wages became decoupled with productivity in the US (https://www.forbes.com/sites/timworstall/2016/10/03/us-wages-have-been-rising-faster-than-productivity-for-decades/#16eb82ee7342 https://www.forbes.com/sites/timworstall/2016/10/03/us-wages...). > and has encompassed administrations on both sides of the fence. What is this evidence of exactly? Neither party would be immune to an incentive structure which prioritizes corporate interests. > It's rooted in a large body of academic scholarship that has withstood the test of time. "Withstood the test of time" by which measure? Which metrics are targeted by the current approach to antitrust law, and which experiments have been done to prove that the system is working?