4 ms·
No, not really. This is probably closer to Chomsky's area than Gödel's. Gödel's theorem is about semantics, not syntax. As a nice counter-example to what you s
by wool_gather 7y ago
No, not really. This is probably closer to Chomsky's area than Gödel's. Gödel's theorem is about semantics, not syntax.
As a nice counter-example to what you said, you can define the Backus-Naur notation using Backus-Naur notation: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backus%E2%80%93Naur_form#Further_examples https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Backus%E2%80%93Naur_form#Furth...