4 ms·
No, it's exactly correct. The fourteenth amendment has been interpreted to mean all sorts of things that weren't actually in it. That's establishing new right
by jki275 7y ago
No, it's exactly correct.
The fourteenth amendment has been interpreted to mean all sorts of things that weren't actually in it. That's establishing new rights based on inferences about what maybe was supposed to be but didn't quite make it into the document.
The 2nd is a very clear piece of writing. There's no ambiguity about it, and Scalia carefully deconstructs all of the BS that other people have written and tried to make it out to be, in explaining how it has always meant exactly what it said.