What is the value of a low could-vote:did-vote ratio in the absence of informed voters? I can see why keeping this ratio high appeals to governments and politi

What is the value of a low could-vote:did-vote ratio in the absence of informed voters? I can see why keeping this ratio high appeals to governments and politicians. It grants them more legitimacy, even if the votes are entirely uninformed. I also see why motivating particular demographics to vote appeals to certain candidates: voters in particular demographics tend to vote for particular candidates/causes/parties. But as an informed voter I'm better off if there are fewer uniformed voters, because my vote becomes more powerful. And as a citizen, I'm probably better off if the majority of voters are informed, even if they don't always vote in my personal best interests.