4 ms·
Maybe the clearest way to see it is that the expected number of boys is one (obviously--there's always exactly 1), and the expected number of girls is also one
by anorwell 16y ago
Maybe the clearest way to see it is that the expected number of boys is one (obviously--there's always exactly 1), and the expected number of girls is also one (1/2 + 1/4 + ...) since the prob. of (at least) one girl is 1/2, and the prob. of a second girl is 1/4, and so on.
- jackowayed 16y agoI agree. This the first explanation that's made me fully understand and accept this problem.