A couple of paragraphs of back-and-forth and we're already adding some nuance to the stats. This is my point. The data needs to be understood and contextualise

A couple of paragraphs of back-and-forth and we're already adding some nuance to the stats. This is my point. The data needs to be understood and contextualised before we form conclusions as to why the disparity exists. As for the reason to focus on gun homicide: in 93% of cases where US police use deadly force the suspect is armed with a weapon[0]. This extremely high prevalence of lethal weapons, and the immediate threat to life it implies, almost certainly contributes to the high number of police shootings. This threat simply doesn't exist in other countries, where even if there may be a high level of gun ownership, gun use is restricted and citizens are predominantly unarmed. https://www.washingtonpost.com/investigations/fatal-police-shootings-of-unarmed-people-have-significantly-declined-experts-say/2018/05/03/d5eab374-4349-11e8-8569-26fda6b404c7_story.html https://www.washingtonpost.com/investigations/fatal-police-s...